WW2 Question - please see below! Why could it be argued that Soviet actions during the Second World War & the immediate post-war years were not...

One can argue anything for the argument sake. But how
credible the arguments are is quite another thing.

Fact is
that, even before World War II, Stalin of Russia had been following a strategy of
aggression and had a treaty with Germany in which the two countries had agreed to divide
Poland between two of them. Thus both Germany and Soviet Russia had adopted a policy of
aggression from the beginning. If later, Germany felt that it can over power Russia also
and attacked, just as it has attacked so many other countries, that does not provide
some special justification for Russia to act aggressively towards its own allies or
other countries.

Further aggression of Hitler as well as
Napoleon were not directed against Russia alone. If, other countries, facing the
consequences of aggression of Hitler and Napoleon, did not feel threatened by Germany or
Japan, when these two persons responsible for aggression were no longer there, what is
the justification for Soviet Russia alone to use that as an excuse for its own
aggressive?

It is important that two major enemies of
Allied forces during the World War II, Germany and Japan, enjoy very good relationship
with countries like USA and UK. If these countries find no reason to force their will on
these two countries. what can be the justification for Russia to force its will on any
other country?